essay by
Dr. Joseph S. Salemi
Department of Classics: Hunter College
C.U.N.Y.
1. According to Hix, we cannot say that amorphous free verse ruled the roost in American poetry during the 60s and 70s. His reasoning? A number of formalist poets got Pulitzers in those days. This is like saying that Germany in 1938 wasn't anti-Semitic because a few prominent Germans opposed Hitler's racial policies. All I can ask is this: Was Hix around in the 60s and 70s? Does he know the kind of scum who dictated policy in workshops and creative writing programs back then, and who still largely do so today?In short, all four of these claims rest on unexamined assumptions, which means that they are emotionally-based pleas rather than arguments. The message of those pleas is essentially this: New Formalism should become Formalism Lite, and consciously strive to make itself more appealing to the people in the poetry world who matter. Who are they? That's easy to divine, though Hix never mentions them: the publishers, editors, reviewers, grant-dispensers, and academic Pooh-Bahs who carry clout, and who can certify a movement as socially acceptable.2. According to Hix, we cannot say that there is a substantial difference between free verse and formal, metrical verse. His reasoning? Timothy Steele says that meter's strength derives from its irregularities, and therefore "regular meter always was free verse." This is like saying since structural steel derives its strength from the irregularities of its trace elements, good steel can be made by just heating up anything in the smelter. Does Hix really believe that there is no difference between formal and free verse? Perhaps he does, since he calls Story Line Press "the primary publishing organ for new formalist poetry." Yet Story Line Press has just published An Honest Answer by Ginger Andrews, a completely meterless and formless collection of confessional lyrics in the style of Williams and Ginsberg. If Andrews is a "formalist," somebody is conning us.
3. According to Hix, we cannot "settle for a narrow, fundamentalist view of form." His reasoning? It wouldn't be (to use his own terminology) expansive, dynamic, and ecumenical. What do those three words mean? Nothing, really--but they sound great to a certain kind of wide-eyed naif who wants to seem energetically trendy. And attacking anything as "narrow" or "fundamentalist" always guarantees a good kneejerk response from a liberal audience.
4. According to Hix, we cannot become a subculture within the subculture of poetry. His reasoning? Because that would "replicate fractally the failure Dana Gioia has attributed to poetry itself." This is like saying that since Luther had already broken with the Catholic Church, Zwingli shouldn't have broken away from Luther. Who says so, and why? Why should Hix presume to tell us that we may not form loyalties and allegiances of our own choice, no matter how "fractal"?
Joseph S. Salemi